questions about revolutions relating to the US government

[a skeletal outline of relevant thoughts]

When the 'revolution' results in a loss of rights, in fascism, in theocracy - 

external: the US stirs/creates/encourages revolution in other countries to accomplish totalitarianism in that country

   see: Iran & Iraq, Guatemala, Nicaragua, Panama, etc

internal: the US uses graded/gradual exposure to loss of rights to accomplish totalitarianism domestically

   see: US history, with a possible increase in pace since 9/11

The pattern (above) has obvious reasons; easier to instigate a revolution in another country, a coup that puts your people in power, than to gradually affect their laws. Easier to gradually affect the laws when you are the one in power, and you don't want that to change. There are probably other reasons, too, and a host of supporting reasons and inputs.

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Is it an intentional conspiracy, or just an accumulation of decisions that favor those in power because individuals will almost always favor their own power?

Does it matter?

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Did the US begin its descent into theocracy w/the addition of "in God we trust" & "one Nation, under God" in the 1950s, or was it earlier?

Was it when the puritans got here?